Question to cricketeers..

[Exile]

Did we win the 2nd ODI by 21 runs OR by 2 wickets? What's the correct nomenclature?

[Gamma]

by 21 runs because they are chasing. if they chased successfully then the wickets might be an issue only as wickets in hand because a team can successfully chase but in the process lose more wickets than the team thqt batted first. clearly in that instance it cannot be said that they won by wickets.

this answer would be peculiar to ODIs

[Peter R]

You win by "runs" when you bat first and beat the team that bats second (because you bowled them out before reaching your total). If you bat second and pass the target you win by "wickets" as you stop batting at that point...therefore wickets in hand is the margin of the win.

Same is true for Test cricket.

I'm open to other views but that's how I've understood it.

[Exile]

Thanks to both of you. Now if I could get that to the sports commentators.

[Islandman]

Thats my understanding too.

The winning by wickets can be a bit confusing in limited overs cricket since the team batting first did not necessarily lose more wickets than the team batting second that makes the runs. So if Team 1 makes 250 for 3 and then Team 2 makes 251 for 9, then Team 2 wins by one wicket.

But the same situation of winning by wickets would occur in first class/Test cricket if the team batting first declares after losing just a few wickets and then the team batting second hits off the runs, correct?

[Mark]

You win by "runs" when you bat first and beat the team that bats second (because you bowled them out before reaching your total). If you bat second and pass the target you win by "wickets" as you stop batting at that point...therefore wickets in hand is the margin of the win.

Same is true for Test cricket.

I'm open to other views but that's how I've understood it.

Peter, That is how I would explain it.